Prophets have no sins; it is said that they have zallah (slip). What does the fact that prophets are sinless mean?
Submitted by on Thu, 30/04/2015 - 16:23
Dear Brother / Sister,
It is very important in what sense are the words of the Qur'an used. When the innocence of the prophets is considered, it will be easily understood that this is not a deliberate rebellion.
Thus, it is stated in previous verses that Hazrat Adam (AS) forgot this promise:
"We had already beforehand, taken the covenant of Adam, but he forgot: and We found on his part no firm resolve." (Surah Taha, 20/115)
So, the attitude of Hazrat Adam (AS) is not a deliberate action like rebelling the order of Allah. Thus, it is possible to understand the verse as follows instead of a "rebellion":
"In the result, they both ate of the tree, and so their nakedness appeared to them: they began to sew together, for their covering, leaves from the Garden: thus did Adam disobey his Lord, and allow himself to be seduced." (Surah Taha, 20/121)
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