Why does the Quran address mostly men?

Quran is a book sent as an address through Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon him). It is useful to know that the Quran was sent in the style of speech and that it was transferred from language of speaking into written form. For this reason, the style of Quran is full of such addresses as say, "o humankind", "o believers", "o disbelievers", "o people of the book", "o prophet", they ask you, say It is because the Quran addresses the Prophet that the addresses in the verses are in the masculine. In Arabic, the female and the male are addressed with different expressions. And it is the requisite of this language that the addresses to the Prophet are in the masculine.

In the Quran and Hadiths, Islamic commandments and prohibitions, promises about the world and the hereafter are inclusive of both men and women, if no exception is made. It is not important that these are expressed in masculine predicates, adjectives, and pronouns. This is thus in terms of both Arabic and Islamic Jurisprudence methodology.

It is not necessary for a command or a prohibition that addresses men to be repeated for women, too. This is because, as we mentioned, this is the requisite of Arabic and of the mentality of law, as well as a requisite of Qurans peculiar style and of its mentality of expression. For Quran, before else, declares believer men and believer women as friends and helpers of each other:

"The believers, both men and women, they are guardians, confidants, and helpers of one another. They enjoin and promote what is right and good and forbid and try to prevent the evil, and they establish the Prescribed Prayer in conformity with its conditions, and pay the Prescribed Purifying Alms. They obey God and His Messenger. They are the ones whom God will treat with mercy. Surely God is All-Glorious with irresistible might, All-Wise." (At-Taubah Surah, 9:71)

Similarly, in this verse, the expression They enjoin and promote what is right and good, and forbid and try to prevent the evil and other subjects and pronouns until the end of the verse are all expressions addressed to men. By looking at this, is it possible to say that the verse excludes women? No.

Quran openly promises the beauties and favors of the paradise to believers, both men and women. Likewise, in At-Taubah Surah, 72nd verse, it is said:

"God has promised the believers, both men and women, Gardens through which rivers flow, therein to abide, and blessed dwellings in Gardens of perpetual bliss; and greater (than those) is Gods being pleased with them. That indeed is the supreme triumph."

Islam is not the religion of only men. The Quran does not address solely men. In the Glorious Quran, there is a long surah special to women (An-Nisa Surah). In Quran, it is said that God also sent revelation (inspiration) to some women (Al-Qasas, 28). "Women are the other half of men" which means one equal part of a whole. "And whoever does deeds of righteousness, whether male or female, such will enter Paradise." (An-Nisa, 4:124). "The believers, both men and women; they are guardians, confidants, and helpers of one another" (At-Taubah, 9:71). "Men shall have a share according to what they have earned, and women shall have a share according to what they have earned." (An-Nisa, 4:32)

In Quran, the words that denote women nisa, nisve, imrae, unsa pass together with their derivatives for 85 times, and the words racul, zakar, mar that denote men pass again together with their derivatives for 86 times.

There is no Islamic scholar, and no human being who says that the word human does not include women.

When the majority is addressed, as a requisite of the Arabian language, it will be done either in a masculine or in a feminine structure. In a community in which the social life is on mens shoulders with its entire burden, what can be more normal than choosing the masculine structure? Moreover, this language is the same language Arabs used before Islam. They talked this way in those times, too. Can it be imagined that the Quran, which came in their own language, mars that language? The same characteristic is present in French and partially in English, as well. Can you give utterance to the same claim for them, too?