Did the Psalms abrogate the decrees of the Torah? If the Torah was distorted, was it not necessary for the Psalms to abrogate its decree? Who is using the Psalms now?
Every book that was sent down changed the decree of the book before it because it had been distorted. Is it also valid for the Psalms? Did the Psalms abrogate the Torah? What kind of a relation exists between the Torah and the Psalms? Who is using the Psalms now? If the Torah was distorted, was it not necessary for the Psalms to abrogate its decree? If the Psalms did not abrogate it, what is the wisdom behind the Psalms’ being sent down?
Submitted by on Sat, 05/05/2018 - 11:18
Dear Brother / Sister,
As it is known, an independent shrai’ah was not imposed by the Psalms; Hz. Dawud (David) acted in accordance with the shari’ah of Hz. Musa (Moses).
The Psalms sent down to Hz. Dawud generally includes his invocations to Allah and hymns. The original Hebrew form of the Psalms is in verse. The Psalms, which is one of the first divine books of the period of religions based on the oneness of Allah, was sent down in order to show the way of Allah to the nation of Jews, who deviated from the right path, did not accept ethical rules and plunged into sins. In addition, the claim of Jews "No book will come after the Torah" was refuted when the Psalms was sent down to Hz. Dawud. (Elmalılı, Hak Dini Kur'ân Dili, İstanbul 1938, IV / 3081)
The Psalms was in Hebrew first and it was written with the alphabet of Hebrew-Aramaic. After the spread of Christianity, it was translated into Latin. However, it is not possible to say that there exists an original copy of the Psalms today. There is no nation following the Psalms on the earth today. However, both the Jews and Christians read some pieces from the Psalms in worship and rites today. It is known that especially the Christians always read some selected pieces of the Psalms on Sundays in the church.
Basic decrees are the same for all prophets; they are not abrogated. For instance, the principles of belief are the same in all true religions and worshipping exists in all of them. However, there are differences in the secondary decrees, that is, in details, of worshipping. Abrogation is in question related to the decrees like the form and time of worshipping and the direction of the qiblah.
The divine books that were sent were the same as the ones before them in terms of principles of belief. However, there were differences in worshipping and fiqh decrees.
The Psalms did not abrogate the shari’ah sent by the Torah. For, the Torah had not been distorted then. People were given religious and ethical advice in the Psalms and it was sent as a religious book confirming the Torah.
Questions on Islam
- Were divine books sent down after the previous book was distorted?
- Was a divine book sent down after the previous book was distorted?
- Is it true that there exists an undistorted copy of the Torah? If it is not distorted, how can the signs about the Prophet in the Torah be explained?
- What is the difference between the Quran and the Torah?
- how can you disprove the jewish religion?
- Jews say that the torah is unchanged, and it is like the quran in the original language (hebrew) and there is also just one version of The torah
- Will you answer the claims related to the Quran, the Gospel and Islamic contradictions?
- Why did Allah send the Quran as the last book?
- What is the last divine religion?
- What does distortion mean? Could you please explain How the Torah and the Gospel were distorted?